Archive for month: May, 2019

COMPLETE CORRECT ANSWERS FOR QUESTIONS 11-20 11.   People who receive Medicare

A. are never eligible to receive Medicaid.    B. may be eligible to receive Medicaid if they meet the age requirement.    C. may be eligible to receive Medicaid coverage.    D. can combine Medicare with TRICARE.

12.   Ralph is assigning diagnosis and procedure codes for a 35-year-old patient from New Mexico, who has hypertension and end-stage renal disease. Would this patient qualify for Medicare?

A. Yes, because the patient has end-stage renal disease    B. No, because the patient resides in New Mexico    C. No, because the patient is under age 65    D. Yes, because the patient has hypertension   13.   The first prepaid health insurance plans in the United States were    A. TRICARE and workers’ compensation.    B. CHAMPUS and CHAMPVA.    C. Blue Cross and Blue Shield.    D. Medicare and Medicaid.   14.   Which of the following is the largest privately underwritten health insurance contract in the world?    A. Harless program    B. SCHIP    C. Federal Employee Program (FEP)    D. CHAMPVA program       15.   A provider is classified as a/an    A. biller who submits claims to insurance carriers.    B. coder who provides medical record data.    C. individual or group of individuals that provide a health care service.    D. beneficiary that provides information for insurance coverage.     16.   Tom is billing an emergency room visit for a Medicaid patient who’s being seen for a wellness visit. Which one of the following statements is true as a result of the Balanced Budget Act?    A. There are new surgical treatments available.    B. No new applications are required for TAFT recipients.    C. Patients have expanded preventive-care benefits.    D. There are new standards for TRICARE.   17.   Dr. Singer is working within a reimbursement system in which the insurance is billed after all the treatment has been given to the patients. What is the main reason that the doctor orders more tests, exams, and procedures under this system?    A. Fear of being sued    B. To increase resource utilization    C. To make a profit    D. Because no one has to pay for it   18.   With a PPO, the beneficiary has the ability to    A. choose a hospital within a 50-mile radius only.    B. choose a physician or hospital from the designated provider list.    C. select a dentist within a 10-mile radius.    D. select an add-on policy for supplemental unemployment benefits 19.   Physician-hospital organizations (PHOs) are also called _______ organizations.    A. medical staff-hospital    B. health management    C. individual provider    D. preferred provider   20.   Mrs. Fang is a 72-year-old retired school teacher who has been hospitalized for pneumonia. What type of insurance is most likely being used to pay for her hospital stay?    A. Medicare Part D    B. Medicare Part B    C. Medicare Part A    D. Medicare Part C

Write a 1,500 word analysis of “Case Study: Healing and Autonomy.” In light of the readings, be sure to address the following questions:

1. Under the Christian narrative and Christian vision, what sorts of issues are most pressing in this case study?
2. Should the physician allow Mike to continue making decisions that seem to him to be irrational and harmful      to James?
3. According to the Christian narrative and the discussion of the issues of treatment refusal, patient autonomy, and organ donation in the topic readings, how might one analyze this case?
4. According to the topic readings and lecture, how ought the Christian think about sickness and health? What should Mike as a Christian do? How should he reason about trusting God and  treating James?

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide.

Question 1 A 15-year-old boy is being carefully monitored for a skin infection and is being given ciprofloxacin. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

A) Arthropathy

B) Colitis

C) Hepatitis

D) Hypotension

Question 2 A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit of the hospital with bacterial septicemia that has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment. The patient’s most recent blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the patient’s blood. The nurse will anticipate that this patient will likely require intravenous administration of what antibiotic?

A) Vancomycin

B) Penicillin G

C) Cefazolin

D) Doripenem (Doribax)

Question 3 Mr. Laird is a 49-year-old electrician who experienced severe burns on his trunk, arms, and hands in a workplace accident 2 weeks ago. Part of his current wound care regimen involves the daily application of silver sulfadiazine to his wounds.The nurses who are providing care for Mr. Laird in the burns and plastics unit of the hospital should perform what action when administering this medication?

A) Apply a layer of silver sulfadiazine that is sufficiently thick to make the wound bed invisible.

B) Cleanse the wound of debris prior to applying the silver sulfadiazine

C) Apply a thin layer of the drug to Mr. Laird’s wound beds using clean technique.

D) Perform thorough wound care immediately after the application of silver sulfadiazine

Question 4 A patient is prescribed ganciclovir to treat a CMV infection. An oral dosage is prescribed. To help increase bioavailability of the drug, the nurse will encourage the patient to take the medication

A) with high-fat meals

B) with orange juice

C) on an empty stomach

D) with high-protein meals

Question 5 A patient has endocarditis and is taking gentamicin. The nurse will be sure to monitor which of the following?

A) Potassium level

B) Creatinine clearance

C) Serum albumin level

D) Prothrombin time

Question 6 A 30-year-old woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has presented to her primary care provider with a 4-day history of a reddened, itchy left eye that is crusted with purulent exudate. The clinician suspects a bacterial, rather than viral, etiology. How will the patient’s pregnancy affect the potential use of ciprofloxacin to treat her conjunctivitis?

A) Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in pregnancy and the patient may use to same dose and route as a nonpregnant patient

B) The use of ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy

C) It is safe for the patient to use topical ciprofloxacin but the oral route is potential teratogenic

D) The patient will require a lower dose and longer course of ciprofloxacin than a nonpregnant, adult patient

Question 7 A nurse has questioned why a patient’s physician has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of a patient’s infection. Which of the following facts provides the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible?

A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics confound the results of subsequent culture and sensitivity testing.

B) Narrow-spectrum antibiotics normally require a shorter duration of treatment

C) The efficacy of most narrow-spectrum antibiotics has not been proven

D) The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can create a risk for a superinfection

Question 8 A 72-year-old patient is prescribed ophthalmic ciprofloxacin for a bacterial infection in her right eye. The nurse will teach her to observe for which of the following adverse effects of the drug?

A) Lid margin crusting and pruritus

B) Cognitive changes

C) Nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity

D) Tendon ruptures

Question 9 A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline.The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

A) on an empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 hours after taking any meals or other drugs.

B) with a meal.

C) with milk or fruit juice.

D) at bedtime only.

Question 10 A 20-year-old female patient is receiving topical clindamycin for acne vulgaris. She develops a rash and urticaria along with severe itching where the medication is applied. The nurse will formulate which of the following nursing diagnoses for the patient?

A) Diarrhea

B) Risk for Injury related to allergic reactions

C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements

D) Risk of Injury related to blood dyscrasia

drug therapy, including INH and rifampin. A priority assessment by the nurse will be to monitor which combination of laboratory test results?

A) Serum alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, and bilirubin

B) Red blood count, white blood count, and differential

C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, thyroxine, and triiodothyronine levels

D) Fasting blood sugar and 2-hour postprandial blood sugar

Question 12 An immunocompromised cancer patient has developed cryptococcal meningitis and been admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment with amphotericin B. How should the nurse most safely administer this drug?

A) Hang the drug by piggyback with lactated Ringer’s and infuse over several hours to minimize the risk of infusion reaction

B) Infuse the drug over 2 to 4 hours into a central line using an infusion pump

C) Flush the patient’s central line with normal saline and infuse the amphotericin B by intravenous push over 5 to 7 minutes.

D) Place the patient on a constant infusion of amphotericin B at a rate determined by the patient’s body weight.

Question 13 A nurse is aware that the concept of selective toxicity is foundational to antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following statements most accurately describes selective toxicity?

A) A drug harms microbes without harming human cells

B) A drug’s effect on microorganisms is proportionate to dose

C) Most microbes may be collected from a host and cultured on an alternative medium

D) A drug can be isolated and produced in a controlled manner in a laboratory setting

Question 14 An immunocompromised patient in a critical care setting has developed a respiratory infection that has been attributed to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse should anticipate that the patient will require treatment with

A) ciprofloxacin

B) clindamycin

C) vancomycin

D) an antistaphylococcic penicillin

Question 15 Laboratory testing has confirmed that a patient has chloroquine-resistant malaria and the patient’s physician has prescribed quinine along with an adjunctive drug. The nurse should question the physician’s order if the patient has a history of

A) osteoporosis or low bone density

B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C) diabetes mellitus

D) cardiac arrhythmias

Question 16 A 46-year-old man is receiving a quinupristin/dalfopristin IV infusion for a life-threatening infection. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Breathlessness

C) Infiltration, edema, or phlebitis at the infusion site

D) Nausea and vomiting

Question 17 A patient with AIDS has developed a number of secondary infections in recent weeks, including Kaposi’s sarcoma. As a result of this most recent diagnosis, his care team has opted to begin treatment with interferon alfa-2a. The nurse is aware that this drug will address the etiology of Kaposi sarcoma by

A) inhibiting tumor growth by enhancing inflammation

B) potentiating the effects of phagocytes and macrophages

C) causing mutations in the DNA of cancerous cells

D) increasing the production of B cells and T cells

Question 18 Sulconazole has been prescribed for a patient with tinea pedis. The nurse will instruct the patient to use the topical agent

A) once a day

B) twice a day

C) three times a day

D) as needed

Question 19 Which of the following is critical to helping prevent development of resistant strains of microbes in patients?

A) Limit the exposure of bacteria to an antimicrobial agent

B) Keep the antimicrobial drug dosage high

C) Maintain the optimum duration of the antimicrobial agent

D) Maintain the maximum safe frequency of antimicrobial drug ingestion

Question 20 Which of the following nursing actions is most important in achieving successful antimicrobial therapy with vancomycin?

A) Provide maximum physical comfort to the patient

B) Monitor serum drug level

C) Taper down the drug dosage gradually

D) Promote adequate intake of fluids and nutrients

Question 21 A patient is being treated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia. She is allergic to penicillin and is being given azithromycin (Zithromax) in capsule form. The nurse will inform the patient that she will need to take the capsule

A) with food

B) on an empty stomach

C) with or without food

D) immediately after she eats

Question 22 A patient is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for active TB. When discussing this drug with the patient, the nurse should stress that

A) the drug usually causes cardiac arrhythmias

B) the drug frequently causes seizure activity

C) facial flushing may appear but will go away once therapy is concluded

D) body fluids such as urine, saliva, tears, and sputum may become discolored

Question 23 A nurse is explaining the use of acyclovir therapy to a 72-year-old man. Nephrotoxicity is discussed as a major adverse effect in older patients. To minimize the risk of the patient developing this adverse effect, the nurse will advise him to

A) take the tablets on an empty stomach

B) decrease the drug dosage if initial symptoms of nephrotoxicity appear

C) stay well hydrated by drinking at least eight 8-oz glasses of water daily

D) eat light meals every day

Question 24 A 9-year-old boy was bought to his primary care provider by his mother with signs and symptoms of hookworm infection and will be sent home with a prescription for mebendazole. When provided patient and family education, the nurse should teach the mother with which of the following measures to avoid reinfection following treatment?

A) The importance of vigilant hygiene for the boy and the other members of the family

B) The need for the boy to provide serial stool samples for 6 months following treatment

C) The need to supplement the anthelminthic drug with prophylactic antibiotics

D) The need to use prescription skin cleansers during treatment and for 6 weeks after

Question 25 A nurse is caring for a patient who is on amphotericin B. On morning rounds the patient reports weakness, numbness, and a tingling sensation in his feet. What would be a priority action by the nurse?

A) Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake

B) Use strict aseptic technique for drug administration

C) Keep the bed in a low position and the side rails up at all times

D) Reduce the drug dosage

Question 26 A nurse is providing education to a patient who is taking INH. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

A) Cheese, dairy products, and bananas

B) Potatoes and root vegetables

C) Citrus fruits

D) Chicken and fish

Question 27 A child is taking permethrin for head lice. The nurse will instruct her mother to

A) wash her hair daily with a good shampoo

B) increase her daily intake of milk

C) maximize the child’s fluid intake

D) stop using creams, ointments, and oils on the child’s skin and scalp.

Question 28 A patient is receiving cefazolin in combination with anticoagulants. To minimize the adverse effects during therapy, the nurse will

A) monitor the site of injection

B) monitor the patient for bleeding gums

C) continue therapy until 2 days after symptoms have resolved

D) administer the medication with small amounts of food and fluids

Question 29 Which of the following would a nurse assess for in a patient who is taking polymyxin B systemically?

A) Peripheral neuropathy

B) Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

C) Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia

D) Endocarditis and hypertension

Question 30 A 30-year-old African-American woman tested positive for TB and is prescribed isoniazid. The nurse will plan the patient’s care to include close monitoring of the drug therapy because

A) the process of drug elimination will be faster in this patient

B) the therapeutic effect of the drug may be too slow to be effective

C) the patient is at greater risk for high serum levels of the drug

D) the process of drug metabolism may be faster in this patient

Question 31 A patient is receiving long-term clindamycin therapy for a life-threatening infection. The nurse will begin by monitoring this drug therapy by obtaining

A) blood glucose levels daily for 1 week

B) establishing the patient’s auditory abilities

C) a baseline complete blood count

D) liver enzymes weekly until the drug therapy is completed

Question 32 A 45-year-old female patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a bronchial infection. A nursing assessment revealed that she started taking daily vitamin supplements about 2 years ago. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise the patient to

A) take the vitamins at least 2 hours before or after taking ciprofloxacin

B) alternate the dosage of ciprofloxacin and vitamin supplements

C) reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements

D) reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements and double the dosage of ciprofloxacin

Question 33 A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug

A) with a sip of water 1 hour before mealtime

B) immediately before or with a meal

C) with a glass of water 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal

D) intravenously with the assistance of a home health nurse

Question 34 A 15-year-old patient has meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. She is being treated with chloramphenicol. The most important nursing action for this patient would be to monitor

A) blood sugar levels daily

B) liver enzymes monthly

C) plasma concentrations regularly

D) urine output daily

Question 35 A 49-year-old farmer who normally enjoys good health has become seriously ill in recent days and the results of an extensive diagnostic work up have resulted in a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The patient has been admitted to the hospital and has begun treatment with amphotericin B. The nurse who is providing care for the patient should prioritize which of the following diagnostic results during his course of treatment?

A) Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine

B) Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cells

C) PT, PTT, and platelets

D) C-reactive protein

Question 20

A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP’s priority?

a) order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing

b) Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT

c) Prescribe lidocaine 5%

d) Prescribe hydromorphone (dilaudid) 2mg

Question 21

The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take?

a) Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25mg twice daily

b) Ask if the pt has been taking the medication as prescribed

c) Order gabapentin, 100mg TID because lamotrigine is no longer working for this patient

d) Order a CBC to assess for an infection

Question 22

An elderly woman with a hx of alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the pmhnp is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the pmhnp most likely to do?

a) order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip

b) order ibuprofen because she mayneed long term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon

c) Order naproxen because she may havarthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon

d) Order morphine and physical therapy

Question 23

The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP?

a) Orders liver function tests

b) Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication

c) Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500ml/day until the swelling subside

d) Order BUN/Creatinine test

Question 24

The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do?

a) Prescribe estrin FE 24 birth control

b) Prescribe Ibuprofen 800mg every 8 hours as needed for pain

c) Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq) 50mg daily

d) Prescribe Risperdal 2mg TID

Question 25

A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient?

a) “the SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn”

b) “the SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn”

c) “the SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex”

d) “the SNRI can increase neurotransmission to descending neurons”

Question 26

A patient with fibromyalgia and major depression needs to be treated for symptoms of pain. Which is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe for this patient?

a) Venlafaxine (Effexor)

b) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

c) Clozapine (Clozaril)

d) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Question 27

The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?

a) It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels

b) It will induce synaptic changes, including sprouting

c) It will act on the presynaptic neuron to trigger sodium influx

d) It will Inhibit activity of dorsal horn neurons to suppress body input from reaching the brain

Question 28

Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition?

a) Venlafaxine (Effexor)

b) Armodafinil (Nuvigil)

c) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

d) All of the above

Question 29

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain?

a) Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

b) Viloxazine (Vivalan)

c) Imipramine (Tofranil)

d) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Question 30

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select?

a) Pregabalin (Lyrica)

b) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

c) Modafinil (Provigil)

d) Atomoxetine (Strattera)

Question 31

A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?

a) Pregabalin (Lyrica)

b) Gabapentin (Neurontin)

c) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

d) B and C

Question 32

The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient?

a) Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog”

b) Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibits gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

c) Mzatching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransimitters that might mediate those symptoms

d) None of the above

Question 33

The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?

a) “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels”

b) “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels”

c) “SSRIs only increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels”

d) “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels”

Question 34

A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe?

a) Antipsychotics

b) Lithium

c) SSRI

d) Naltrexone

Question 35

Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options?

a) “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss”

b) “there are many medicine options that treat Kleptomania”

c) “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness”

d) “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania”

Question 36

Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression?

a) Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability

b) Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation

c) Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition

d) Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive

Question 37

A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?

a) It will prevent feelings of euphoria

b) It will amplify impulse control

c) It will block testosterone

d) It will redirect the patient to think about other things

Question 38

Mrs. Kenner is concerned that her teenage daughter spends too much time on the Internet. She inquires about possible treatments for her daughter’s addiction. Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of pharmacologic approaches for compulsive disorders?

a) “Compulsive internet use can be treated similarly to how we treat people with substance use disorders”

b) “internet addiction is treated with drugs that help block the tension/arousal state your daughter experiences”

c) “When it comes to internet addiction, we prefer to treat patients with pharmaceuticals rather than psychosocial methods”

d) “there are no evidence-based treatments for internet addiction, but there are behavioral therapies your daughter can try”

Question 39

Mr. Peterson is meeting with the PMHNP to discuss healthier dietary habits. With a BMI of 33, Mr. Peterson is obese and needs to modify his food intake. “Sometimes I think I’m addicted to food the way some people are addicted to drugs”, he says. Which statement best describes the neurobiological parallels between food and drug addiction?

a) There is decreased activation of the prefrontal cortex

b) There is increased sensation of the reactive reward system

c) There is reduced activation of regions that process palatability

d) There are amplified reward circuits that activate upon consumption

Question 40

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state?

a) Histamine 2 receptor antagonist

b) Benzodiazepines

c) Stimulants

d) Caffeine

Question 41

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, “I don’t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.” Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient’s symptoms and appropriate treatment options?

a) Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors

b) Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors

c) Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors

d) None of the above

1)     Assign CPT code(s) and appropriate modifiers to each statement.

 

 

The physician performed a complex repair during resection of the diaphragm and closed the residual defect with synthetic graft material.

2)      Mediastinotomy to remove foreign body using transthoracic approach, including median sternotomy.

3)      Patient underwent repair, laceration of diaphragm.

4)      Physician inserted a mediastinoscope through an incision in the sternal notch and performed a mediastinal lymph node biopsy.

 

5)      Physician  repaired an acute traumatic diaphragmatic hernia.

Patient underwent alveoloplasty to remove sharp areas or undercuts of alveolar bone, one quadrant.

Surgeon used a scalpel to slice off a cancerous portion of the vermillion border of the patient’s lip: mucosal advancement was performed after excision.

Surgeon made an incision through submucosal tissue and removed a lesion in the vestibule of the mouth. Wound repair was not required.

Patient underwent simple incision of the lingual frenum to free the tongue.

Patient underwent incision in the parotid gland to remove calcified stone.

Surgeon repaired a tear at the pharyngeal esophageal junction.

Physician drained and abscess near the tonsil.

Surgeon removed an 8 year old patient’s tonsils and adenoids.

Physician controlled secondary oropharyngeal hemorrhaging, status post tonsillectomy, by using cellulose sponges that expanded when placed in the tonsillar cavity.

 

Physician performed a tonsillectomy on a 12 year old male patient.

Physician inserted a flexible esophagoscope into the esophagus and destroyed a lesion, using snare technique.

Surgeon made an incision in the left posterior chest wall into the esophagus to remove a foreign body from the esophagus.

Physician inserted a balloon endoscopically for tamponade of bleeding esophageal varices.

Dr. Smith performed a partial cervical esophagectomy while Dr. Jones performed a jejunum transfer with microvascular anastomosis.

The physyician passed an endoscope through the patient’s mouth and visualized the entire esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and jejunum. One lesion was removed using biopsy forceps. Another was remove using snare.

Patient underwent incision of the pyloric muscle.

The physician performed an open revision of a previously performed gastric restrictive procedure and reversed the previously partitioned stomach to restore normal gastrointestinal continuity.

Using fluoroscopic guidance, the physician repositioned a gastric feeding tube through the duodenum.

The physician performed a laparoscopic surgical gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass and roux-en-Y gastroenterostomy.

 

The physician percutaneously place a gastrostomy tube into the stomach under fluoroscopic guidance including contrast injection(s), image documentation.